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Is there a correlation between introversion and intelligence? (self.askscience)
submitted 3 months ago by SomeSillyQuestions
In popular media intelligence and introversion often go together but is this view supported by the available data? Is intelligence associated with introversion or are they orthogonal?
[–]sytar6 19 points20 points21 points 3 months ago*
According to research by Wolf and Ackermann (2005) standard meta-analytic techniques might not be appropriate for uncovering the relationship between extroversion and intelligence because there seems to be the possibility of a non-linear relationship existing between the two constructs. It is hypothesized that there may be an inverted-U shape curve, with lower abilities associated with the low and high extremes on the personality trait.
Introverts and Extroverts have the same average IQ, but the breakdown of the subtests tends to differ. Introverts do better on verbal tests while Extroverts do better on performance tests. (e.g., WAIS Similarities vs. Coding). That's just IQ, though.
Extroversion is thought to correlate to small degree with Openness to Experience. OTE and Extroversion form the meta-trait Plasticity. OTE is correlated with measures of creativity. Plasticity, as well, is correlated with measures of creativity. So, it's likely that extroverts are to a small degree more creative than introverts. Interestingly, this correlation does not seem to hold when testing for Math-Science creativity, for which there was no appreciable correlation.
Cohen has some interesting research that relates to this point. He found a sixth personality trait not quite orthogonal with extroversion (-.33), which correlates strongly with interest in math, engineering, physics, programming, etc. I don't want to read too far into it, especially since interest does not necessarily equate to aptitude. I'd like to see this trait measured against math-science creativity. I don't know of any study which has done this yet.
Extroverts are better at:
The dual-task version of the divided attention task.
immediate recall.
Retrieving 'low dominance' semantic category instances.
Fluency of speech production
Introverts are better at:
long-term recall
problem-solving tasks requiring insight. Introverts finish faster and are more accurate; Extraverts finish impulsively.
Source: Cambridge Handbook of Personality Psychology
[–]rubes6Organizational Psychology/Management 2 points3 points4 points 3 months ago
You make some very good points and it's interesting to explore non-linear personality relationships! My responses were in the general sense, but certainly it is important to consider more specific effects and their variation. Very good response.
[–]EpistaxisMolecular Biology|Genomics|Bioinformatics 3 points4 points5 points 3 months ago
Take me to the top, boys.
That's a little presumptuous, but yes, this looks like a great response to my (untrained) eyes.
[–]luckypenne 37 points38 points39 points 3 months ago
source
It is usually assumed, with good reason, that intelligence, as defined by Spearman's g, is not correlated with personality. A good deal of work has been done, for instance, on the possible relation between the WAIS, as a good measure of intellectual ability, and the MMPI, as a meausre of personality. Gaines and Morris (1978) found that "...there are no lawful relationships between WAIS subtest and MMPI clincial scales" (p. 400). Similarly, Bloom and Entin (1975) concluded that "apparently no lawful relationships exist between WAIS and MMPI scales, and further investigation seems unwarranted" (p. 698).
There are a few other sources given stating the same thing and the page before this one has a nice definition on different measures of intelligence. It is a hard trait to quantify.
I think the display in media that you mention is more to do with the student in an academic setting whose introverted traits might make them more studious, but studiousness doesn't necessarily equate to intelligence.
[–]neuro-kinetics 68 points69 points70 points 3 months ago
Hi everyone. Professor of Neuroscience here. First of, intelligence is a scientific measure and can be traced biologically. I think what one of the posters was confusing is that there are two components of intelligence.
A) Fluid: also known as G factor. Is determined mostly by genetics. Think of this as the raw horsepower of your brain. There are tests that measure G that are not (or aren't so posed to ) be influenced by culture. The progressive matrices by Raven is one such example. A person who dropped out of elementary school and a person who has three Ph.D.'s should score the same on this test if they have the same level of G factor.
B) Crystallized: This can be thought of the sum of all the things we know. So for example, if two people get dropped in a jungle and one has very high G factor and one has lower G, but has taken a survivalist course. The survivalist will be more adapt to responding to challenges.
As we get older, our G factor decreases and our Crystallized intelligence increases. What the other poster was referring to was the fact that crystallized IS a function of socio-cultural environment.
Now back to the OP's question. The problem is that there are many definitions of introversion, and a few of intelligence. If you want a straight answer I'd have to say they are orthogonal. If you would like, I'll explain where introversion- extroversion comes from in the brain, so that you can get a better idea.
[–]dargendarg 14 points15 points16 points 3 months ago
Please explain.
[–]neuro-kinetics 24 points25 points26 points 3 months ago
It wil be a bit long, and I'll simplify, but it will give you and idea.
In the early 1900's Pavlov noticed that different animals of the same species had different reactions to the same types of stimuli. For example, if you placed an object in a box with 10 rats, not all of them would go towards it, some would, but others would retract. This of course could not be caused by social, educational or religiosus aspects. There had to be something different in the brains of the stimuli-seeking rats than in the stimuli-aviodence rats. Pavlov went on to study various species (famously dogs) and noticed the same thing across.
He figured that there was an advantage to have these differences in the species. For example, if all rats went towards a fox the first time they saw one, it would lead to massive deaths. On the other hand if no one ever ventured to make new discoveries, we would have never left the ocean.
If all mammals have this, then so do we. What is the human equivalant to sensation seeking in animals? Pavlov thought extroversion, who are characterized, among other things by being sensation seekers. introverts obviously are the opposite.
Now, where does this come from? One of the most accepted theories is that the differences stem from different levels of brain activation. There is a nucleus in the brain called the ARAS (ascending reticular activation system) which is responsible for how active your brain is. It determines when you fall asleep, wake up, and your general level of brain activation. If it gets damaged, you will go into a coma, even if the rest of your brain is fine.
Introverts and extroverts differ in how active their brain is. Are you ready for the surprise? Introverts have more active brains, and extroverts brains are less active. Initially you would tend to think the opposite. The reason is that just like any other organ or system of your body, the brain has an optimal level of activation.
Extroverts are below their optimal level, so they look to outside stimuli to raise activation: riding motorcycle fast, listening to loud music, are more impulsive, etc.
Introverts are above their optimal level so they try to bring it down by refraining from stimuli.
Proof you say? If you have a kid who is hyperactive, what would you give him to settle down? Valium, right? According to this theory he is hyperactive because his brain is under-aroused, if we raise his level of activity, he should stop looking for outside stimuli.
This is the idea behind Aderall. Initially it would seem insane that you would give a strong stimulant to someone who is hyperactive. The idea is that by raising his arousal way beyond optimal level, then he will try to readjust downward.
Alcohol, which is a depressant, makes people excited by working in the same way but in opposite direction.
As I said, long, over-simplified, but it will give you an idea.
[–]MagicNine 0 points1 point2 points 2 months ago
This is fascinating. I've just read every comment of yours. Now for some questions. (some of which maybe be from different threads)
1) When you say an introvert has a more active brain, does this mean that they have a better fluid intelligence than a less active brain of an extrovert? (or is it correlated in any way?)
2) When you say 'optimal level' for brain activity, is this the point at which fluid intelligence peaks? Or is an increase in fluid intelligence correlated with an increase in brain activity?
3) How correlated is extroversion/introversion with brain activity? I'm sure there are many extroverts that with a higher fluid intelligence than the average introvert. An extrovert with a highly active brain must have other causes of his extroversion. Or is it that every brain has a different level for 'optimal activity', and that a smart extrovert is still below his optimal brain activity.
4) Do left handed people tend to prefer certain areas of knowledge as compared to right handed people?
5) Does handedness correlate with fluid intelligence?
6) Would a brain injury at a young age, before one learns to write, influence the handedness of a person?
7) I've seen Aderall make people more social. Why is this the case, if it increases brain activity? Or am I misunderstanding your definition of extrovert vs. introvert? (I define extroversion as a willingness to engage in stimuli and social behavior)
8) Is motivation correlated with extroversion?
I hope I haven't overwhelmed you at all. I find this stuff fascinating. My main areas of study are economics, accounting, and mathematics, but I binge on theoretical physics and neuroscience a lot for fun.
[–]neuro-kinetics 0 points1 point2 points 2 months ago
Hi, thanks for the questions.
I need to clarify one main point: arousal is not correlated with intelligence. Therefore extroversion/introversion has no predictive value on intelligence.
now on to the handedness questions. there is some evidence that left handed people are better at spatial tasks i.e. drawing.
The brain injury/handedness theory says that if you have some distress to your left hemisphere, you can switch to the right (which controls the left hand). by the time you are a few months old, hemispheric specialization is well on it's way. So if you have some problem at 5 years old, it would be way too late.
Aderall. it depends what type of people. for example, many people take aderall because it allows the, to forgo distractions (even social) and study.
Motivation vs. intro/extroversion. So, this has to be viewed in the optic that the person is trying to reach optimal level of arousal. therefore, extroverts are more motivated to do things that would raise their arousal, while introverts would be more motivated to do things that would lower it.
There is a whole branch of study that is at the crossroads of economics and neuroscience. You should look into it.
[–]rubes6Organizational Psychology/Management 10 points11 points12 points 3 months ago*
I agree with the part of this post about crystallized and fluid intelligence, but I have reservations with confounding knowledge with abiity. Most simply, intelligence is the capacity or ability to learn, but is not knowledge or learning itself. Intelligence is also NOT adaptation to one's environment. Insects have adapted, but we wouldn't say they are intelligent. I disagree with other parts of this post as well, especially that there are many definitions of introversion. Factor analytically, research consistently shows the many adjectives describing extroversion/introversion emerging as one of the big five personality traits (Costa and McCrae; McCrae and John).
The real answer to OP's question is that extraversion and intelligence are only weakly related in a meta-analytic sense (and if you run a meta-analytic structural equation model, the partialled path coefficient isn't much smaller, or more attenuated).
Here is the citation you should read: Judge et al., 2007. Scroll down to Table 3 and see that Extraversion-GMA (intelligence) is the most weakly related personality trait, at estimated rho of .02. That means that if you average 61 studies, 21,000 people in various job contexts and settings and times, this is the average estimated population correlation.
Interestingly, Openness to Experience is the personality trait that most strongly relates here, at .22.
(personal background: 3rd year Ph.D student at R-1 university--my research focuses on individual differences in personality and intelligence as it relates to on-the-job performance and vocational outcomes).
[–]neuro-kinetics 2 points3 points4 points 3 months ago
I never said Intelligence is the capacity to adapt to ones environment. Water adapts perfectly and instantly to it's container, but lack intelligence. As a matter of fact, one (partial) definition of intelligence, is how you adapt the environment to suit you. For example, buildings, couches, clothes, etc.
"intelligence is the ability to learn" YES! this is G factor. "not knowledge itself" it is also knowledge itself. This is crystallized intelligence.
One example might help here. The human brain hasn't changed significantly over the last 50 thousand years, yet we are undeniably more intelligent then our forefathers because of the amount of knowledge we have.
There ARE many definitions of extraversion/introversion. The Costa and McCrae big fit model has many flaws and is far, far from being the only one. Take for example the publication battle they had with hans Eysenck. For those who don't know, Eysenck is the most Cited psychologist in the world.
The BIG FIVE model for example a) lacks any sort of bio-physiological explanation of were the factors emerge from. b) is not statistically more valid then other models, such as the PEN model. c) Even statistically the five factor are not orthogonal to each other and have overlap ( a statistical no-no) d) cannot be tested reliably experimentally, if not for statistical correlations to questionnaires.
The big five model is mostly used by people who do market research and industrial Psychology because of how it is described statistically.
It is a great and useful model, but far from the only one.
[–]thebestwes 1 point2 points3 points 3 months ago
As a matter of fact, one (partial) definition of intelligence, is how you adapt the environment to suit you. For example, buildings, couches, clothes, etc.
Can you elaborate on this?
[–]neuro-kinetics 1 point2 points3 points 3 months ago
Sure. One common definition of intelligence used to be how well you adapt to the environment. As I noted above, this is not a good definition because water instantly adapts to whatever container it is put on, but it is not intelligent.
Some authors propose that demonstrating the capacity to adapt the environment to your own needs is an idea of intelligence. In a cold environment, a species might grow a thicker fur, whereas we can light a fire, kill an animal and wear it's fur, build a house, etc. Suppose that there is a clam with a thick shell. One species of birds will adapt a beak to break it, while another will drop is from a height to break it. The capacity to use instruments is one of the ways that researchers try to establish the level of intelligence animals. Arguably, one of the biggest problems of humans is that they have changed the environment too much...
[–]referendum 0 points1 point2 points 3 months ago
When you say "some authors," it brings to mind my confusion of an education professor's interpretation of Howard Gardner. Basically that intelligence can be gauged by success according to the culture of the individual. e.g. Kobe Bryant is a Bodily-kinesthetic genius because he is a very successful athlete. This assessment is vague and doesn't account for people like Gregor Mendel who was not viewed as a great success during his lifetime.
You make some very good points. Please remember I didn't come up with these constructs, I was just answering questions about them. What I would say is, yes, Kobe Bryant IS in fact highly above average in his abilities. The difference with intelligence as a whole compared to single abilities is that if I were to ask you how good is Kobe in Organic Chemistry, you would have no way of knowing. Intelligence, on the other hand is more of a cluster or root. There are high levels of correlations (with the obvious exceptions) between G factor scores and you ability to learn math. You can say with a high level of confidence that someone with an IQ of 150 will learn organic chemistry more easily than someone with an IQ of 75.
Regarding the changing of the standards, yes, our understanding of intelligence has changed over time, but so has our understanding of gravity. That does not necessarily imply that gravity is a cultural construct and it doesn't really exist.
The point you make about Mendel is a very good one. What I would say is that recognition is usually a one way street. It often happens that people are ahead of their time and it takes time for the general public to catch up. As you know, half of the people in the US don't believe in evolution and think that Darwin is full of crap.
On the other hand, no matter how our definitions vary over time, some things are constant. Think of how much our understanding of the brain has changed in the last 400 years. Nevertheless, you won't hear people saying "on second thought Newton was a pretty dumb guy who just got lucky". Socrates was 2500 years ago.
[–]ChaosLFG 1 point2 points3 points 3 months ago
Look at that self-efficacy, too. Comes out to .2, almost as much as openness.
[–]helio500 2 points3 points4 points 3 months ago
Around when should this G factor be decreasing and what can be some reasons why it would happen too young? I'm not particularly old and feel as though I'm far worse at quick arithmetic and thinking on my feet as when I was younger.
You sat art aging as soon as you are born, for some things, even before. Just for your kicks consider this: a 20 year old has about half the neurons of a 10 year old. Most of them you didn't need though and the neuronal pruning is actually functional. The peak mental capacity by adding both components of intelligence comes at around 45 years of age. The is of course a lot of variation depending on what job you do and what tasks you are confronted with. Mathematical reasoning takes a lot of G power.
It is not a coincidence that when you look at nobel prizes, and people who would make great discoveries in the sciences, they usually did so at a young age. Einstein was 26 when he laid the foundations for both Relativity and Quantum Mechanics. By the time he was 26, Newton had discovered the laws of gravity, motion, optics, thermodynamics and invented calculus.
On the other hand people who have made contributions in the fields of Philosophy, literature, etc. usually do so at a later age, because making such a great contribution requires a level of personal maturity and experience.
[–]dhcoli 2 points3 points4 points 3 months ago
A) Fluid: also known as G factor. Is determined mostly by genetics.
I am concerned that you are confusing "genetic" with "heritable". I think it is generally agreed that intelligence (whatever that means--see G6P's comments) shows a high degree of heritability. However, saying something is heritable is different from saying that it's genetic. From the (rather thorough) article over heritability at Wikipedia: "Heritability measures the fraction of phenotype variability that can be attributed to genetic variation. This is not the same as saying that this fraction of an individual phenotype is caused by genetics."
The confusion between heritability and genetic may stem from the similarity of the word with "inheritable". However, this similarity of terms is misleading.
[–]neuro-kinetics 4 points5 points6 points 3 months ago
I was simplifying the construct. Genetic in the sense that studies who looked at identical twins separated at birth showed how their G factor score was very close, being that they grew up on different environments, this portion has to be genetic.
Of course we are leaving out other factor like epi-genetics and such
[–]dhcoli 0 points1 point2 points 2 months ago
The similar G-factor score need not necessarily be genetic. There are other explanations. For example, if twins are put into similar households (similar incomes/education level/ethnic backgrounds of the parents) then the assumption of "different environments" doesn't hold completely, and it would seem unethical to put one twin in a rich loving household and the other in a impoverished abusive household (or rich abusive/impoverished loving--how you like) for the sake of science.
In any case, what the twins studies actually suggest is that the variation in the G-factors is genetic. This is not the same as saying intelligence is largely genetic. The conclusions from these studies are far from straight-forward and much more complicated than are usually suggested by secondary literature.
Stephen Jay Gould wrote extensively over this very subject (measuring intelligence and its relation to genetics) in his book "The Mismeasure of Man", which is a very interesting read.
I agree, with a few exceptions.
Scientists don't put twins in homes, adoption courts do. Socio-economic status is NOT a predominant factor in adoption. Education level isn't either. Couples need to show that they can provide for the child, but more affluent couples are not given preference over less affluent ones. People with college degrees are not given preference over people with high school diplomas. This is done so that children don't just go to rich doctors or college professors. Therefore, you have twins growing in all kinds of environments, even different countries at times (parents moved). The similar environment factor seems to lose weight.
I think what you meant to say is that statistically twin studies explain the Variance in G factor. I have read Gould's book. The point is that there are many scientist who do this for a living. We shouldn't dismiss their research just because we wish things were different.
The bottom line is that the brain is an organ and there will be biologically determined variation between people just like any other organ.
Re: your point about variance v. variation: you caught me. However, this still doesn't demonstrate that high heritability mean that a trait is predominantly genetic. All it says is that the variance is predominantly the result of genetics. Variance is a measure of the spread of a distribution (which we usually assume to be normal). So, what exactly does it mean if you have a trait with high heritability and a relatively small degree of variance?
Regarding your point about income bias, your assertion seems naive. I agree that there aren't any laws directly discriminating against the poor or uneducated. However, there is a de facto bias against many groups. The screening procedure for adoptive parents is both intense and expensive. For example, you can forget about adopting a child in most states if there is any history of mental illness in a parent (e.g. got diagnosed once with a low level depression). Also, prospective parents often have to demonstrate to ridiculous levels their ability to provide for the child. Some states require you to show that you will have a separate room for each child. The process is intense enough that prospective parent must often take off a large amount of time--particularly if they are adopting a child from overseas. Of course, parents can increase their chances by saying that they're willing to adopt an older child (i.e. not an infant), but this will essentially destroy any meaningful interpretation of twins studies. Finally, the paperwork alone can cost thousands of dollars. This is all to say that there is a de facto selection against prospective parents with lower incomes.
And, (until relatively recently, at least) there is a strong correlation between income and education level. That's not to say that all higher income people have more education. It doesn't even mean that you need a higher education in order to earn a higher income (it's just a correlation). However, it does mean that if you have a higher income, you are more likely than not to have had some college-level education. Because of this correlation and because of the de facto discrimination against people with lower incomes in the adoption process, there is also a correlation between education level and ability to adopt a child.
Your point about the brain being an organ is not a very good argument for a strong role for genetics. It is true that genetics can affect the ability of different organs to function. However, nutrition and environmental exposure can play a much MUCH larger role. The list of environmental factors that are known to affect brain development is long: nutrition, oxygen deprivation, alcohol, cocaine, crank, thalidomide, rubella. The list goes on and on. Perhaps you can correct me, but I'm not aware of any genes (with the prominent exception of aneupoidies) that can affect intelligence as much as these environmental factors.
I don't mean to outright dismiss the work of these scientists. There may be a genetic component but the strength of this contribution is unknown (your original post implied that the contribution of genetics was strong and obvious). However, as a scientist with a PhD in genetics (full disclosure--my degree is in bacterial genetics), I am doing what I do best--expressing skepticism.
I don't mean to go back and forth on this. My Ph.D. is in Cognitive Neuroscience, my area of research is not Intelligence. My original post was just to answer somebody.
regarding the adoption. I know a couple of people who have adopted. The secretary in my department just adopted a child last year. Her and her husband are both high school graduates and they are of middle class. Also, twin studies have been done in many countries, each with their own laws, each with their own procedures, some allow single parent adoption, etc. furthermore, there is higher correlation between identical adopted twins than between fraternal adopted twins.
Presumably, if we want to say that adopted children end up in similar environments do to the selection process by the agencies, we would have a hard time explaining why identical twins end up in more similar environments than fraternal twins.
The fact of the brain being an organ and being under the influence of dozens of environmental factors. I fully agree. That's what twin studies are for in the first place. when one goes to Brazil and one to Germany, they eat different things, different culture, different languages, different climates, etc.
The problem is: how do you explain higher correlation between identical twins than fraternal twins?
[–]dhcoli 1 point2 points3 points 2 months ago*
I didn't mean to go back and forth on this either. However, reasoned argument requires a conversation. I meant only to put a skeptical light on the very strong claim (which I doubt many researchers in the field would back) that:
A) Fluid: also known as G factor. Is determined mostly by genetics. (emphasis added)
The strength of this conclusion is simply not warranted by the published evidence. A strong argument for a substantial role of genetics in intelligence rests on the assumptions below. If any of these assumptions are untrue, the strong argument must be abandoned out of academic honesty. These assumptions are:
The G-factor actually measures what the researchers think it measures. The G-factor probably does measure something. However, as suggested by other commenters, there is sufficient evidence to suggest that tests purporting measuring the G-factor could actually be measuring something else--e.g. socioeconomic status.
In the twins studies, that the variance in measured intelligence that is observed is sufficiently large to merit a statically significant difference between the test and control groups. In fact, different groups have reported heritabilities for measured intelligence ranging from 0.9 to 0.5 (Nature 388, 417-418). This large range suggests that the data is very noisy and therefore less reliable than the strong argument permits.
In the twins study, that the twins have never shared an environment during any period critical to the development of their measured intelligence. This assumption is even more doubtful because the twins (both fraternal and identical) shared the maternal environment of the womb during which time their nervous systems developed. This is the issue addressed in the study from the News and Views article above (Nature 388(6641):468-71). These data suggest that measured intelligence may have a genetic component but this component is actually a far more complex mixture of genes and environment. For example, it seems possible that some genotypes are more or less affected by maternal nutrition. If this were the case, identical twins should be affected more similarly than fraternal twins resulting in an increased heritability.
In the twins study, the environment of the separated twins should be substantially different. I understand your point that there are no laws directly discriminating against families with low incomes. However, there is no doubt that adopting a child is expensive--likely one must be at least middle class to be able to afford it. The example of your secretary doesn't really counter my argument because: (i) she is, as you state, middle class; (ii) she works, I presume, at a university, therefore likely lives in a good school district, and likely values education; and (iii) even if you say these aren't true, the evidence is anecdotal and may be represent an exception to the statistics. I am well aware of the expense of adoption as my wife and I have considered this option and have therefore done quite a bit of research on the subject. We live in Germany, and although the procedure is less biased than in the US, it still favors middle class families. Another selection is imposed by child services departments that screen the appropriateness of the adoptive parents, which decreases (but doesn't eliminate) the possibility that they won't be mentally or physically abusive (or otherwise unfit to be parents). These selections err on the side of caution, so families with ANY history of mental illness (depression, etc) could be eliminated. Thus, the selection is strong. A final consideration is that this group is self selecting--this is especially true in cultures where adoption isn't promoted as strongly as it is in the US (which is most other places in the world). Each of these selections works to decrease the variance in the environment in which adopted children are raised, and therefore decreases the apparent effect of environment on measured intelligence.
Although I realize that I haven't shown any of these premises to be patently untrue, I hope that I have cast doubt on the strong argument for a substantial and direct role for genetics in measured intelligence. Indeed, I admit that genetics could play a role in cognitive abilities, but the data doesn't warrant a strong conclusion.
Normally, I would agree that such a "back and forth" would be silly if we were talking about, say, functional efficiency of the kidneys. However, discussions of the genetics of intelligence is a socially charged topic that can have important social and political consequences. Because you read the Gould book, you will know that less than a century ago, many countries and many states passed laws to sterilize people with low intelligence (along with other people of socially undesirable groups). Some of these laws are still on the book. We shouldn't assume that we are so much better that we wouldn't pass equally evil legislation today.
Moreover, as a professor of neurobiology with a degree in cognitive neuroscience (the former of which was invoked in your initial post as a claim to expertise), your claim for a substantial role for genetics in innate intelligence will be taken more seriously. As scientists, I believe we have important responsibilities--especially in the case of socially charged issues such as genetics and intelligence (or aggression, etc). Thus, I think that it is important in a public forum stress the significant on-going debate surrounding these issues.
EDIT: formatting and grammar
I agree that a conversation is always good. I don't think for a moment that I will change your views or that you will change mine, as both have been formed over years of studies and considerations, and won't be influenced by a reedit post. I think it is good in the context that people who read these posts will get a better understanding of arguments behind important topics.
To your points:
modern tests for G factor are not influenced by Education level. They are graphic in nature and therefore the person doesn't even have to know how to read.
twin studies. Yes identical twins share a uterine environment, but so do fraternal twins. you can say that it is a combination of genetics x uterine environment, but that means that genetics is playing a role. I can't think of any way to test that hypothesis.
You do make some very good point on the fact that we can never be certain. But , that applies to any type of genetic research. i.e. obesity, cardiovascular diseases, schizophrenia, etc.
Furthermore, this is true with ANY line of research. For example we know that our weight is determined by the amount of calories we consume. If we over eat by 3500 calories we will gain a pound (7000 calories a kilo). If you over-eat by 3500 a day (which a lot of people do in the USA), you will gain 2000 pounds (1000 kilograms) in 6 years. Except it doesn't work people who over-eat by that much will gain maybe 250-300 pounds in that time. The model is off by almost 90%. That doesn't mean that calories don't matter though. It just means that the model is incomplete. Just like every scientific model
To this day there isn't one experiment that demonstrates that smoking is bad for people. Simply because it is illegal/ unethical to make people smoke for experimental purposes. Yes people who smoke more have more lung disease, but that could be from the lighter fluid. It could be that they smoke because they are anxious and it's the anxiety that causes both the smoking and the cancer. We have animal models for smoking (as we do for intelligence). But the truth is we cannot be 100% sure.
To this day we don't know what gravity is caused by...
My point is we can find dozens of problems with any scientific hypothesis and theory. There is a declaration signed by a group of scientist that says that Darwin's theory of evolution cannot conclusively explain evolution. As you know evolution is one of the best understood theories we have.
Kidneys Vs Brain. The truth is the truth whether it is socially charged or not. There are many people who don't want scientists talking about religion because it is a socially charged issue. If something is true, it is true regardless of what people think.
If the eugenics movement is Germany had sterilized short people because they wanted a tall uniformed race, it would be a mistake for a scientist to say that we cannot study the genetic components of height because it is socially charged.
In my view, knowledge should be unlimited. The application of that knowledge should be controlled, discussed, debated, regulated, etc.
Do I wish there were no nuclear weapons? Yes. Do I wish Einstein had never existed? No.
P.S. I don't teach Neurobiology. I teach Psychophysiology. My main area of research is EEG
[–]G6PEvidence-Based Medicine -4 points-3 points-2 points 3 months ago
What the other poster was referring to was the fact that crystallized IS a function of socio-cultural environment.
No, I was referring to the fact that intelligence itself is culturally defined.
Having worked in the field of quantitative genetics for some time, I'd love to here the evidence for claiming that 'intelligence' has some basis in genetics, and, more importantly, that this mysterious 'G factor', which as you say is a proxy for intelligence as determined by genetics, has been measured and found to decrease as we age.
In addition, how do you measure this 'Crystallized intelligence'?
Both of these variables smell like philosophy, which, along with anthropology, is admittedly the best place to discuss intelligence. Claiming it is a scientifically valid metric, however, is something else entirely.
[–]mobzoe 3 points4 points5 points 3 months ago
If you were to label these ideas of crystallized and fluid intelligence it would be Psychology if anything.
While I agree that intelligence is hard to quantify and that the idea of intelligence itself is a culturally defined phenomena I think that's where it gets philosophical - not in two scientists trying to figure out how to measure the dang thing.
I think we've made leaps and bounds in the study of the brain in these past couple decades that I'd love to hear neuro-kinetics' explanation of where it may come from in the brain etc.
[–]G6PEvidence-Based Medicine 2 points3 points4 points 3 months ago
The problem isn't with measuring intelligence; you can outline a few criteria that meet your definition of intelligence and then measure those criteria, assuming your measurement instrument is accurate. Where the problem occurs is claiming that you have, in fact, measured intelligence. Why? Because, intelligence is something that does not have a clear, agreed upon definition.
In the example I outlined earlier, calcium is different from intelligence in that there is a physical object that can be measured, consistently, with the same properties over time. Scientists called this thing 'calcium' because it's simply easier to discuss physical objects if they have different names. Intelligence, on the other hand, is a label attributed to a characteristic whose definition no two people will completely agree upon.
So, your instrument may be measuring 'intelligence', but in reality it's measuring your definition of intelligence. When a paper published in a journal claims that, for example, "Eating more apples increases your intelligence", what it's really saying is "Eating more apples increases your score on this test that we believe satisfies our definition of intelligence, and we think you should agree with our definition of intelligence, too."
[–]DoorsofPerceptronComputer Vision|Machine Learning 7 points8 points9 points 3 months ago
Yeh, but this is how science works.
For example, physicists redefined the words "work" and "force" to have a very specific meaning that doesn't exactly correspond to their everyday use.
Psychologists have done the same with intelligence, by using it as a synonym for g.
[–]The_Nopemaster 5 points6 points7 points 3 months ago
Crystallized and fluid intelligence were first defined by Horn and Cattel in 1966. Fluid intelligence is defined by relatively culture-free tasks, such as ability so see and measure relationships among objects or ability to see patterns. Crystallized intelligence is defined by tasks that require people to have acquired information from their culture, such as vocabulary or the kinds of information learned in formal schooling.
There is nothing "mysterious" about the g factor. Charles Spearman proposed in 1927 that a person's performance on a test of intellect is determined by two factors; the g factor and the s factor.
The g (for general) factor is a factor of intelligence that is common to ALL intellectual tasks. This is analogous to fluid intelligence. Spearman concluded that a general factor accounted for moderate correlations among different tests of ability.
The other factor, the s (or specialized/specific) factor is a factor of intelligence specific to a specific task I.E spatial reasoning. Both the s and g factors determine how well an individual will perform on a specific test.
As far as evidence for claiming that intelligence has basis in genetics, studies have shown that that the intelligence correlation between two people is indeed related to genetic similarity. The correlation between identical twins is stronger than between fraternal twins. The correlation between parent and child is approximately the same regardless of whether the child was raised by their parent. In turn, the correlation is higher between an adopted child and their biological parents (~.35) than between an adpoted child and their adoptive parents (~.16).
Many studies have been conducted as to the heritiability of intelligence, where heritability means the degree to which the variance in a given trait in a population is influenced by genetics. Neisser and colleagues (1996) summarize the evidence of heritability of IQ by placing it at .45 in childhood and .75 in adolescence (due to the fact that we are able to increasingly choose our envrionment, which also has an effect on IQ expression, as we age). In general, older people in good health do well on tests of crystallized intelligence, which depend on knowledge and experience, while fluid intelligence appears to decline with age.
None of these variables have anything to do with philosophy but rather have everything to do with the science of Psychology, which is definitely a much better place to discuss intelligence than philosophy/anthropology as you claim. Heritability is absolutely a scientifically valid metric.
Edit: Sources - (Source: Henderson, N.D. Human behavioural genetics pp. 403-440) (Source: Carlson, Neil R. and Heth, C. Donald. Psychology the science of behaviour. pp 329, 343, 393)
[–]G6PEvidence-Based Medicine -8 points-7 points-6 points 3 months ago
I'm afraid you're missing the point, which is: g factors or not, at the end of the day psychologists are creating metrics for a variable that is not scientifically definable, but culturally definable (hence my reference to anthropology, a discipline I hold an advanced degree in). Horn and Cattel have created instruments to measure something, but saying that something is objectively intelligence is something entirely different, I'm afraid.
Frankly, what you've described is the creation of an instrument that measures something, without never knowing exactly what that something is, and then using a word that has been variably defined across time and culture to describe the thing that has been measured. That, simply, is not science.
[–]nuwbs 10 points11 points12 points 3 months ago
Seems a little hostile..
[–]rubes6Organizational Psychology/Management 8 points9 points10 points 3 months ago*
The "g" factor is not so mysterious. It all goes back to Spearman (1904). He found that many measures of specific abilities--verbal, quantitative, spatial, perceptual, problem solving--all tended to be highly correlated. If you factor analyze each of these specific abilities, you find that they can all be commonly subsumed as manifest indicators of a latent factor, called g. In more lay terms, All specific abilities are highly correlated, suggesting they share something in common, and may be indicative of some general quality. It all becomes quite statistical from here on out.
Intelligence does have many definitions. For our purposes, let's use Gottfredson's definition to say that it is “very general mental capability that, among other things, involves the ability to reason, plan, solve problems, think abstractly, comprehend complex ideas, learn quickly and learn from experience” (Gottfredson, 1997, p. 13)
Intelligence is indeed highly genetic. A quote from Judge, Ilies, & Dimotakis (2010), published in a top-tier journal suggests: "Though between-individual variations in GMA are substantially genetic (Bouchard, 1996; Jensen, 1998; Plomin & Neiderhiser, 1991), this does not mean that GMA is wholly exogenous to the environment. Indeed, both maternal nutrition and early childrearing environment appear to play a role in the “Flynn Effect” (Flynn, 1987)—increases in measured intelligence over the past 80 years (Lynn, 2009).
Edit: GMA=General Mental Ability, or g, or the latent factor I was referring to. Also, you can check Tim Judge's website here, where he offers all of his published work for free viewing. Also, I'm his student, so it may partly bias my response, but I feel I've been writing disinterestedly here.
[–]Bonesaw39 3 points4 points5 points 3 months ago
crystallized and fluid intelligence are indeed defined in psychology
[–]neuro-kinetics 3 points4 points5 points 3 months ago
Studies of identical twins separated at birth and adopted by different families show ho their G scores are nearly identical. Fraternal twins in the same circumstance do not.
As a geneticist, how would you explain that? I'm not asking with sarcasm, you have more knowledge in the field of genetics, what is your take?
As for the decline in G. Newborns have the capacity to make 30 thousand Synapses per second! adults are in hundreds.
If you want to look at the brain as an organ, which it is, you cannot say the there is great variation in human attributes (which there is), except for brain function. Just like people vary in liver enzymes, cardiac output, running speed, hight, they do so also in brain function. It isn't Philosophy or anthropology. It's the basis of biology
[–]JoshuaZ1 4 points5 points6 points 3 months ago*
Having worked in the field of quantitative genetics for some time, I'd love to here the evidence for claiming that 'intelligence' has some basis in genetics
There's a lot of literature on this. This twin study for example shows in a variety of different countries, intelligence is highly inherited. This correlation uses a wide variety of different metrics and notions of intelligence. This isn't exactly the same as saying that it is genetic (religion is a highly heritable trait but obviously isn't primarily genetic), but it is evidence. There are other problems as well, heritability is a function of specific environment and it turns out that socioeconomic setting doesn't just impact standard metrics of intelligence, it actually impacts how heritable they are. See e.g. this paper. But even taking that into account there's still a strong inherited component that looks independent of surrounding environmental and socioeconomic factors.
As to the existence of "g"- the data here is quite robust, going back about a hundred years to Spearman's original work. There's also a large body of evidence from the last decade or so that this is strongly correlated with size of working memory. This(pdf) provides a pretty good overview of the history and present understanding of the subject, although he's focusing more on certain specific controversial hypotheses. The general issue is that whenever anyone tries to construct a notion of intelligence, they turn out to be highly correlated, so the fact that each is measuring slightly different things doesn't really matter that much.
[–]G6PEvidence-Based Medicine -7 points-6 points-5 points 3 months ago
From above, so I don't have to repeat myself in an original way.
As for the last part of your statement - memory is a definable, agreed upon variable that is quite easy to test. While we may not know perfectly how it works at the chemical level, we can measure whether somebody has remembered a fact, or whether they have not. That is completely different from saying somebody is intelligent.
[–]JoshuaZ1 10 points11 points12 points 3 months ago*
Repeating yourself isn't terribly helpful when you are missing the point: A large variety of different notions of intelligence all correlate with each other. Whenever anyone constructs a metric of intelligence this is the case. So your claim that this is the focus of "an instrument" is simply false.
You might want to think so. Unfortunately, the apparent correlation between working memory and various psychometric measures of intelligence is extremely high. You might want to look at some of the research done by Phil Ackerman on this subject. Although he's one of the people who downplays what that correlation mean, he's done a lot of research showing that this result is robust. For an argument that says that the two are in many ways essentially identical see this paper.
[–]EpistaxisMolecular Biology|Genomics|Bioinformatics 4 points5 points6 points 3 months ago
intelligence itself is culturally defined.
As a rule, whenever someone says "X is not a scientific measurement; it is a cultural construct" they've probably misunderstood something. Please refrain from layman speculation, even if you think you've heard the answer before, because you might be spreading a popular misconception.
[–]stroganawful 4 points5 points6 points 3 months ago
Depends on the form of intelligence. Take this study, for example. Apparently, extroversion correlates mildly (but significantly) with spatial intelligence. Unsurprisingly, social and verbal intelligence are also correlated with extroversion. Introverts, however, are more prone to analytical thought and prefer solitude and focused, isolated tasks, which disposes them for success at intellectual tasks requiring such situations. This is reflected neurally, as introverts experience greater blood flow to their frontal lobes, areas associated with abstract thought and planning. However, overall, introverted-extroverted behavioral phenotypes are uncorrelated with intelligence.
[–]uppfinnarjocke 2 points3 points4 points 3 months ago
I quickly searched several studies in the university databank, and found this for example:
"A low but significant negative correlation was demonstrated between extraversion and IQ (verbal and performance) so that introverts tended to score higher than extraverts."
http://dx.doi.org.focus.lib.kth.se/10.1016/j.paid.2003.11.016
But it is noteworthy that there is no established connection, only studies pointing towards that, and I also found more general studies pointing towards no connection.
[–]rubes6Organizational Psychology/Management 6 points7 points8 points 3 months ago
Yes, this is correct, especially the second part. Judge et al., 2007 show that across 61 studies, the meta-analytic correlation between extraversion and intelligence is .02. free study link, see table 3
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[–]frankster 2 points3 points4 points 3 months ago
not an inevitable result of our biology, but a result of our biology.
[–]Monoscuit 1 point2 points3 points 3 months ago
What a strange moment for me. As an environmental historian I normally have to defend my arguments against claims of "environmental determinism" from fellow historians but here I defend the notion of cultural-construction and get lumped in with the "nurture" folks.
When did this notion become obscene in the sciences? I thought Dawkins bridged the gap in The Selfish Gene in his discussion of memes? That book is over 30 years old now.
Readers, please note that this is, at the very least, not a consensus opinion the field. Follow down the subthread for more.
[–]zen_arcadeStructural Chemistry 3 points4 points5 points 3 months ago
If a short apodictic statement that basically tells that the OP question is meaningless, and that another top-level, decently thought-out and formatted answer is meaningless - well, if that's a valid reply that does not deserve any downvote, you are perfectly right.
It was probably downwoted because it is a bellicose top-level comment that does not seem to contribute to the discussion. Disclaimer: I have no opinion on this topic anyway.
I see nothing valid about it.
[–]uppfinnarjocke 3 points4 points5 points 3 months ago
It is not a valid reply. Intelligence is a scientific measurement, although hard to measure. We use IQ-tests to measure a certain part of intelligence for example. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intelligence#Definitions
[–]G6PEvidence-Based Medicine -17 points-16 points-15 points 3 months ago*
A scientific measurement: the flow of calcium between the intra- and extracellular environment, as measured by an instrument , the patch-clamp, that utilizes experimentally-validated metrics such as voltage, current and resistance
A non-scientific measurement: the amount of some characteristic, intelligence, the definition of which is not universally agreed upon, measured via an instrument (IQ test) that utilizes as its metrics some culturally valued traits such as 'abstract thinking' and 'planning', the definitions themselves which are neither agreed upon, nor accurately measurable
[–]EpistaxisMolecular Biology|Genomics|Bioinformatics 10 points11 points12 points 3 months ago
You'd better tell the management to delete the yellow and orange tags from the sidebar then ----------->
Also, fuck you for being so confident in your ignorance that you want to spread it to others. I get the same bullshit from physicists who tell me biology isn't a science because there aren't enough equations (FYI there are plenty), yet they couldn't design a controlled experiment to save their lives.
This comment mentions several experimentally validated, scientific measurements that can be made about personality, which you could have discovered with a few seconds of Googling.
[–]JoshuaZ1 2 points3 points4 points 3 months ago
This is the problem in a nutshell. An IQ test or any other metric of intelligence is just as numeric as the calcium test. We might not be able at this point to understand in as much detail what the IQ test measures, but as long as one is getting statistically significant, repeatable results, there's no reason that scientists can't investigate those numbers and see if they have any interesting patterns or implications.
[–]dainthevtaBehavioural Neuroscience|Neuropsychology|Addiction 2 points3 points4 points 3 months ago
You are describing measurement precision. Even your patch clamp has a confidence interval around its measurement of the thing it is intending to measure. Just because the measurement of intelligence is less precise does not mean it cannot be evaluated and studied using the scientific method. I am not aware of any consensus that determine the level of precision an instrument must have to be considered "scientific".
[–]uppfinnarjocke 0 points1 point2 points 3 months ago
Ok, I see that you are right about the definition, however, my point was that there are scientific studies on the subject, so I could not see the reason of your comment.
[–]HelloMcFlyIndustrial-Organizational Psychology 0 points1 point2 points 3 months ago*
I'm not going to dive into this conversation more than this one, short comment. When someone has determined psychology, or aspects of psychology, are not scientific then there is typically no room for debate. That doesn't really bother me.
For everyone else, I wanted to note that true IQ tests (of which I'd imagine few among us here have ever actually seen, much less taken, as the good ones are not inexpensive) very reliably measure different aspects of intelligence (i.e., the construct g), and those aspects of intelligence have shown higher criterion-related validity (predictive and concurrent) for academic and job performance1 than any other predictor, despite years of searching for alternatives2. Yes, they're culturally influenced, and yes, our understanding of what IQ is an evolving process.
Not all jobs, obviously. Some jobs are better suited for work samples, like jobs with physical activity. But in the majority of scenarios, your score on an IQ or otherwise g-centric test will predict performance over the long-run better than experience, work samples, personality, assessment centers, interviews, letters of recommendation, biodata, integrity tests, etc.
This is due, in part, to the cultural aspect, which does exist. Cognitive ability tests tend to show adverse impact in a selection context for employers, the people that use these tests most in an adult-setting.
[–]jamesfilm 0 points1 point2 points 3 months ago*
people seem to be confused that
yes you can set up a test that tests how humans perform at a given task
But you can only infer from those results how well the person was at that specific task not how "intelligent" someone is.
Hypothetically if you could 100% map the brain and have a perfect test for every single facet of the brain and that test could be taken by a human then you might be able to define intelligence and know "how intelligent" someone is Obviously that will probably never be possible.
Even in that case there would be no way to know which parts of the test are more important or make sumone "high functioning" overall.
[–]JoshuaZ1 1 point2 points3 points 3 months ago
No. This isn't how science works. Just because are ways of measuring some specific thing lacks precision or accuracy doesn't mean we can't use it and it doesn't mean it isn't science. If one looks at the history of science, all the time different things were measured when they weren't very good at measuring them. As things became more accurate or it became more apparent what did and did not matter scientists focused on those things.
[–]jamesfilm -1 points0 points1 point 3 months ago*
You didn't understand what I said
"you can set up a test that tests how humans perform at a given task But you can only infer from those results how well the person was at that specific task not how "intelligent" someone is."
Think of it this way just because a person is Really good at Task A does not then mean they will be better at Task X,Y,Z than a person that was bad at task A.
Sure you can say they were more intelligent at task A than the other person but that is not a commentary on absolute intelligence , only inteligance at Task A.
Most people when asking the question is person 1 more intelligent than person 2 they are talking about absolute intelligence which is something that cannot be tested at this point in time and is something that has yet to even be defined.
Intelligence tests work to some extent and its reasonably fair to say that a well designed intelligence test will help us have an idea of if person A is more intelligent than person B. But ultimately an intelligence test is just testing how good person A and B are at taking that test.
If you read the wiki on Intelligence you will see that there is no solid consensus as to defining intelligence.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intelligence
Also look at savants who can often be totally socially inept and incapable of tying shoelaces , but capable of incredible feats with no effort such as reciting pie to thousands of digits or drawing cities from memory. these people would likely fail at a standardized IQ test but obviously are very capable at some specific tasks.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hKk96kOAnLg
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ckqDX2XpdyY
[–]JoshuaZ1 2 points3 points4 points 3 months ago*
Right, it doesn't logically follow as a necessity but empirically such a correlation does exist. That's why Spearman's work was so interesting. He found (and later work confirms) that a large variety of tasks are positively correlated even when the tasks don't resemble each other in any obvious way.
Please don't abbreviate Wikipedia as wiki . Whether or not we have an agreed single definition of intelligence doesn't matter. Before Fahrenheit there was no way to measure temperature beyond a very rough feel. But that didn't stop chemists from noticing when reactions where exothermic or endothermic. Difficulty of measuring something or even difficulty understanding what one is measuring doesn't make it not defined or make it not science.
As to the matter of savants, the presence of outliers in statistics can point to interesting phenomenon but they don't render the basic statistics meaningless.
[–]esuma10 -12 points-11 points-10 points 3 months ago
It is illogical to believe that correlation and causation are the same thing.
So even if there is a correlation, it means nothing. There is a correlation between me walking to work in the morning and the milkman delivering milk to the corner store I walk past. Everyday. That is correlation.
Everyday I walk to work, and everyday my alarm goes off. If my alarm does not go off, I usually wake up late, and take the bus to work instead. Thats causation.
[–]Gauntlet 8 points9 points10 points 3 months ago
That is true, but a correlation may indicate a deeper relationship - i.e. they may be the result of some common other factor, which could be useful to know.
[–]EpistaxisMolecular Biology|Genomics|Bioinformatics 5 points6 points7 points 3 months ago
"Correlation isn't causation" is a terrible slogan and I feel the need to swat down every variant of it that comes up here, even when it's off-topic like yours (no one said anything about causation).
Correlation implies some kind of causation, because causation causes correlation. The trick is just teasing out which of several possible causations is the right one. If X is correlated with Y, X might cause Y, or Y might cause X, or Z might cause both X and Y. If a study revealed a correlation between introversion and intelligence, that would be interesting and demand a causal explanation. Some causal explanations might be ascertainment bias or confounding by some external variable, and any peer-reviewed study will work very hard to control for those factors. Once artifacts are ruled out, the researchers may propose some hypothesis of how X causes Y. They may be able to prove this hypothesis with a controlled experiment, which demonstrates causation.
Edward Tufte famously suggests that we revise the slogan to "Correlation is not causation but it sure is a hint."
[–]focusing -6 points-5 points-4 points 3 months ago
Keep in mind that traditional IQ tests are slowly being rewritten to include emotional/empathetic/sympathetic factors. It's no longer just abstract reasoning and various types of riddles. Given this, it seems that once you consider emotional and social intelligence to also be important (ie - how to act in social situations, how to treat people in diff circumstances, etc), then the introvert would appear to be disadvantaged in this regard.
It doesnt necessarily follow that just because youre introverted, you lack social skills or empathetic abilities, but it would seem like being extroverted would at least help in this regard.
** tl;dr intelligence isnt as simple as traditional iq tests and are being updated to include social/emotional skills**
[–]EpistaxisMolecular Biology|Genomics|Bioinformatics 8 points9 points10 points 3 months ago
Can you provide a reference showing that this "update" is common practice and not someone's pet theory?
[–]rubes6Organizational Psychology/Management 5 points6 points7 points 3 months ago
I can confirm it, though I disagree with it. Locke (2005) cite, wrote an article which I think is well-done. Locke is also one of the most cited academicians in psychology of our time.
Anyway, the TLDR is that emotional intelligence is seen as something that can be learned, which contradicts the definition that an intelligence is enduring, stable, and hereditary. Appending the word intelligence to all these constructs is a political not scientific motive. What we should call these concepts are skills, since that's what they are described, and using intelligence confounds the core idea of what intelligence really is.
A good, quick read (relatively) if you're interested.
[–]rubes6Organizational Psychology/Management 7 points8 points9 points 3 months ago*
The fact that they're being "rewritten" betrays the descriptive aim of science, here: to understand. To that end, those who append emotional and social skills to the idea of "intelligence" represents a political motive, not a scientific one. It says "yay, we're all equal and special in some way, let's find out how intelligence each of us are, musically, aesthetically, naturally, etc." This is no joke, as people like Howard Gardner have proposed sometimes over 100 specific intelligences, with no scientific support wiki link.
Ed Locke (2005) wrote a scathing review of emotional intelligence, under the same pretenses I described. Granted, research shows that emotional intelligence is something, and has predictive value (see Cote & Miners, 2005), but it is inappropriate in my view to call it an intelligence. We have a word for social emotional skills, which by definition can be learned--unlike intelligence, which is much more stable, hereditary, and enduring across the lifespan.
[–]BurnageCognitive Science|Judgement/Decision Making 4 points5 points6 points 3 months ago
This is no joke, as people like Howard Gardner have proposed sometimes over 100 specific intelligences
Just asking out of curiosity, but do you have a specific reference for this? I haven't read Gardner claiming more than eight, and a quick skim of your Wikipedia link suggests that he only considers two other possibilities. Who's proposed "over 100"?
[–]rubes6Organizational Psychology/Management 1 point2 points3 points 3 months ago
Sorry, I misspoke here. It wasn't Howard Gardner who proposed over 100, but rather J.P. Guilford wiki link.
Again, personally, I am more of a lumper than a splitter, and tend to work with only general mental ability in my research, rather than specific abilities. However, I am currently working on a meta-analysis looking at the incremental predictive validity of specific abilities over and above GMA in predicting job performance (as well as comparing confidence intervals of all specific abilities relative to GMA).
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